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  • In project performance tracking, what term refers to raw observations collected during execution?
  • Which formula assesses cost performance and is defined as EV divided by AC?
  • Which artifact captures assumptions and constraints to be tracked through the project lifecycle?
  • What is the primary purpose of a traceability matrix?
  • The CEO is thrilled about the success of the product trials and asks to expand the sampling; what should the project manager do first?
  • How do contingency reserve and management reserve differ?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Risk Register?
  • What is Stakeholder Engagement Planning?
  • Which project management artifact is used to visualize the sequence and timing of activities?
  • Which project management process describes the activities performed to formally complete a project, phase, or contract?
  • In an Agile environment, which tool is used to track work completed in the current iteration?
  • What is a milestone in project planning?
  • Which practice is considered most important for Knowledge Management to enable sharing among team members?
  • Which statement correctly differentiates Work Performance Data from Work Performance Information?
  • Which statement best describes Work Performance Information?
  • Which document defines how information about project progress is collected and communicated to stakeholders?
  • Which document defines acceptance criteria for deliverables?
  • Which tool is commonly used to visualize project schedule?
  • What would a diagonal trend line that runs below the plan line signify on a Burndown Chart?
  • Which quality tool is used to identify the most common causes of problems?
  • The project sponsor would like to understand the team's performance during the last iteration. Which of the following would be appropriate for you to review with the sponsor?
  • Which ERD diagram would best illustrate data and relationships between entities?
  • What is Resource Leveling?
  • Opening communication channels and opportunities for stakeholders to raise concerns without penalty is best described as an aspect of which project management concept?
  • Which option best describes the Cost Baseline?
  • What document is used to identify and analyze stakeholders and their needs and expectations?
  • Which output is associated with the Control Quality process?
  • In quality management, which activity focuses on preventing defects by improving processes?
  • What is the purpose of closing a project or phase?
  • What is Trend Analysis and how is it used in Monitoring and Controlling?
  • Which process is used to monitor contract performance and manage procurement relationships?
  • Which process group is primarily responsible for developing the project charter and identifying stakeholders?
  • What is Resource Leveling and when would you use it?
  • What is a risk owner?
  • Which project role is responsible for validating scope?
  • On a Burndown Chart, if the diagonal trend line runs below the plan line, what does this indicate?
  • Which cost measure compares the actual cost for labor or resources to the estimated cost?
  • Qualitative Risk Analysis is used to prioritize risks based on what factors?
  • During a Sprint Retrospective, the team identifies an impediment involving a 3D printer. As a servant leader, which action best addresses the situation?
  • What is a cost baseline and how is it used?
  • What is a Gantt chart and how is it used?
  • What is the difference between a phase and the project lifecycle?
  • What is the purpose of Stakeholder Analysis?
  • What is the fundamental goal of Quality Management?
  • An agile framework that develops iteratively and builds incrementally, thus utilizes MoSCoW for prioritizing work requirements, and prototyping to engage stakeholders in early discovery is
  • Which technique is used to prioritize risks by probability and impact?
  • In earned value management, which metric indicates the difference between earned value and planned value?
  • Which knowledge area includes planning, performing, and verifying quality?
  • Which statement best describes actions when TCPI is greater than 1 and indicates future performance must improve to meet the plan?
  • The Gantt Chart may be used to analyze :
  • If the diagonal trend line on a Burndown Chart runs above the plan line, what does this indicate?
  • What is a risk register and what information does it contain?
  • What is Plan Quality Management?
  • Which term best describes creating a transparent working environment with open communication channels and opportunities for stakeholders to raise concerns without penalty or fear of retribution?
  • In earned value management, which metric is the ratio of Earned Value to Planned Value (EV/PV)?
  • What is the purpose of the Assumption Log?
  • What is the critical path and why is it important?
  • What is the primary purpose of the Project Charter?
  • An activity has an early finish date of January 21 and a late finish date of January 28. What can be said of this activity?
  • What is the difference between a procurement statement of work and a contract?
  • Which process focuses on leading and managing the project team, including resolving conflicts?
  • If material costs budgeted at $10,000 are reduced by 10%, saving $1,000, and Schedule Variance is zero, what is the Cost Variance?
  • What is Plan Procurement Management?
  • What are the five process groups in PMBOK?
  • Which outputs are produced by Plan Procurements?
  • NPV is calculated as ...
  • The inclusion of new information into the product's functional requirements as more details become known is called
  • What is Control Procurements?
  • What does Plan Resource Management produce?
  • With a To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI) of 1.25, which statement best describes the project's status?
  • What is qualitative risk analysis and what purpose does it serve?
  • What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and why is it important?
  • What describes the difference between defining activities and sequencing activities?
  • Which risk response option reduces probability or impact of a risk?
  • Which statement about the WBS dictionary is true?
  • Which concept is primarily used to balance resource usage by delaying tasks?
  • What is the term for the sequence of activities that determines the project duration?
  • Which Agile event is held daily to commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team?
  • You learn that an application program interface failed during a quality control test and code is sent back to the development team for remediation. The labor charges associated with the rework is considered to be:
  • What does Plan Communications Management determine?
  • You meet with your quality team to review their findings, where a Pareto Diagram is used to represent the :
  • Where are project constraints typically documented?
  • What is a Statement of Work (SOW) and its purpose?
  • What is Work Performance Information?
  • Which statement about tailoring and hybrid approaches is true?
  • Which is a basic cost element in project budgeting?
  • Which plan describes how project communications will be generated, distributed, stored, and controlled, including formats, channels, and frequencies?
  • Which of the following is true about closing a project or phase?
  • Which item is part of the scope baseline?
  • Which statement describes resource leveling's effect?
  • In agile and iterative development, which practice is used to deliver usable functionality in small increments?
  • In communications management, what is the purpose of the communications requirements analysis?
  • In PMBOK terminology, which process group contains planning activities such as Plan Schedule Management?
  • A project manager may utilize these skills to reduce tension and promote cooperation when stressful situations arise among team members:
  • If Earned Value (EV) = 120 and Planned Value (PV) = 100, what is Schedule Variance (SV)?
  • What is the difference between fixed-price and cost-reimbursable contracts?
  • During Sprint Planning, which question is answered?
  • What is the purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM)?
  • Rejected change requests should be communicated to stakeholders through which artifact?
  • Which document outlines how project information is collected, stored, and communicated to stakeholders?
  • What is a Stakeholder Register and what information does it typically include?
  • Which process ensures procurement activities align with organizational policies?
  • The ability of a stakeholder to influence the project is:
  • What is the main output of the Control Quality process?
  • What is the purpose of Net Present Value in project selection?
  • Which quality tool is used to determine the correlation between two variables?
  • Which structure is used to categorize project resources by type and resource category?
  • What are the basic cost elements in project budgeting?
  • What is the main output of Plan Risk Management?
  • How is Cost Performance Index (CPI) calculated?
  • How does a change control system help governance in a project?
  • What is the primary purpose of the daily stand-up?
  • What is the purpose of Plan Procurements?
  • What is the purpose of updating the risk register during risk response planning?
  • Which process results in the Project Management Plan?
  • The trend line on a Burn Down chart shows
  • Which document is used to capture identified risks, their characteristics, and planned responses?
  • Which document is used to ensure all requirements are captured in the design and built into the end product?
  • Which items compose the scope baseline?
  • Float (slack) in scheduling, and how does it differ for the project finish date versus an intervening milestone?
  • Plan Scope Management and what does it produce?
  • Which document formally authorizes the existence of a project and grants the project manager the authority to apply organizational resources?
  • Which Agile artifact lists the work items to be completed in an iteration?
  • Which description accurately defines risk ownership?
  • Which metric indicates the rate at which the project budget is being spent?
  • To address stakeholders who understand high-level goals but not product details, which approach and lifecycle?
  • What is the difference between acquiring resources and developing the project team?
  • Which PMBOK process areas contribute to Performance Reporting?
  • Which process yields the WBS and WBS Dictionary?
  • Which output is produced by Plan Communications Management?
  • Which knowledge area focuses on ensuring the project has the necessary people and resources?
  • Which metric compares the estimated cost of remaining work to the remaining budget?
  • Which process results in the Project Charter?
  • What is Close Procurements?
  • Which of the following is a persistent problem in elicitation sessions?
  • In integrated change control, which group approves changes?
  • Qualitative Risk Analysis is used to prioritize risks based on what factors?
  • Which knowledge management practice is regarded as the most important aspect?
  • Which of the following best describes Close Procurements?
  • Which document specifies who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for project tasks?
  • What is an Issue Log and how is it used?
  • A project paid $300 in unexpected fees before breaking ground. If the project is 80% complete, the forecast for Estimate at Completion is which of the following?
  • What is a RACI chart and how is it used?
  • Which statement about float in scheduling is correct?
  • Quality Control Measurements can lead to which outcome?
  • Urgency differs from Proximity in that:
  • Which statement best describes tailoring in relation to core PM concepts?
  • To prevent changes to product specifications being implemented without proper approval, review which project management plan?
  • Which artifact is used to capture knowledge gained during the project to improve future work?
  • In scheduling, what is the difference between a lead and a lag?
  • Because of a delay in project activities, a key project resource now has been assigned two concurrent project assignments. When asked by the resource what to do, you should first:
  • Which technique is used to compare the benefits and costs of a project to decide whether to proceed?
  • Which role typically approves or rejects change requests on a project?
  • In integrated change control, which group typically approves changes?
  • Which diagram would you use to group related findings?
  • Which process involves obtaining bids or proposals from sellers and selecting a supplier?
  • Which risk response involves shifting the risk impact to a third party, such as through outsourcing or insurance?
  • Which project management process group is responsible for defining the project scope and the course of action required to attain objectives?
  • Which quality dimension corresponds to the description: Does the deliverable function as the project team and other stakeholders intended?
  • When working on legacy system code with rushed decisions leading to sloppy documentation, this condition is identified during sprint planning as
  • What is the formula for Schedule Variance?
  • Name a quantitative estimating technique used in cost estimation.
  • The Development Team should have all the skills needed to
  • Which contract type shifts most cost risk to the buyer?
  • What does the Scope Management Plan define?
  • What is the value of a Lessons Learned Register?
  • What documents are typically included in procurement bid packages?
  • Which document formally authorizes the project and grants the project manager authority to expend resources?
  • When stakeholders need to visualize solution to refine requirements, which lifecycle is preferred?
  • Which process is primarily responsible for monitoring and controlling project work to ensure alignment with the plan?
  • Which process yields the Project Management Plan?
  • Who is primarily responsible for grooming the product backlog in an Agile project?
  • Which process yields the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and WBS Dictionary?
  • What is the purpose of the project charter?
  • Which technique is used to prioritize risks by probability and impact?
  • To ensure proper handling of changes, which plan governs the process of requesting, approving, and tracking changes?
  • What does the term 'scope creep' refer to?
  • Why is a kickoff meeting important in a project?
  • What is the Assumption Log used for?
  • What is the primary purpose of a Configuration Management Plan?
  • Which statement is true:
  • If you plan activities that aim to eliminate or reduce the probability of a threat occurring, what risk response have you chosen:
  • Which statement best describes a Communications Management Plan for a project?
  • What are Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs) and Organizational Process Assets (OPAs) and how do they influence planning?
  • In the days following project kickoff, you notice several team members doing work not assigned to them, while other team members with subject matter expertise are not being included in requirements analysis. You immediately
  • Which diagram is used to identify the most frequent causes of problems so that improvement efforts can be targeted?
  • In which situation would a directing leadership style typically provide more clarity and momentum than a highly collaborative approach?
  • Which tool helps identify opportunities to eliminate waste caused by time traps and capacity constraints?
  • Which option describes Cost Baseline?
  • Which plan should you consult to ensure that all stakeholders are informed about project changes and status updates?
  • Scaling Agile is used to?
  • What is the Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix used for?
  • What is the difference between the project charter and the project management plan?
  • What is Plan Resource Management and what does it produce?
  • What is a Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS) used for?
  • Which cost category includes costs of rework discovered after the product has been delivered to the customer?
  • Which knowledge area focuses on defining and controlling what is in and out of the project?
  • Which process uses the schedule baseline to monitor schedule performance?
  • Which of the following is NOT a PMBOK knowledge area?
  • Which contract type places the least financial risk on the seller?
  • In an Agile environment, product backlog refinement is performed
  • Which quality tool records variables and attributes during inspection?
  • In preparing an estimate, the relationship between duration and effort is:
  • Root cause analysis - which diagram connects related contributors?
  • ERD relationship to depict one head coach
  • Which knowledge area is primarily concerned with identifying, analyzing, and planning for uncertainties that could affect the project?
  • Which metric is typically used to understand the team's performance in the last iteration?
  • Which process yields Schedule Forecasts and Change Requests?
  • Which artifact should capture information about approved or rejected changes to avoid confusion among stakeholders?
  • If EV = 110 and AC = 100, what is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
  • What is the main purpose of the WBS Dictionary?
  • Which document defines the project scope and deliverables?
  • What are the components of the Scope Baseline?
  • A study that examines the viability of a potential recommendation to address business needs is known as:
  • What is the purpose of the Validate Scope process?
  • Which project management process group includes tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project?
  • Kanban is based on which concept?
  • The contract type with the lowest risk for the seller is:
  • Incentives and awards within contracts may be used to:
  • How does PMBOK address agile/adaptive approaches within CAPM?
  • Which statement best describes what a change control system provides in project governance?
  • How do quality assurance and quality control differ?
  • What is Perform Procurements?
  • Which term describes analyzed information about status and performance derived from performance data?
  • What is the purpose of the Stakeholder Engagement Plan?
  • What is Tailoring in project management?
  • Which concept is used to tailor stakeholder engagement by considering influence and interest?
  • Which element is created during Plan Procurement Management?
  • What is a Quality Management Plan?
  • In project planning, which statement best describes the relationship between a constraint and an assumption?
  • Which quality tool is used to perform Root Cause Analysis?
  • Which index measures schedule performance as EV divided by PV?
  • Which knowledge area deals with defining and controlling what is included in the project scope and how requirements are collected and managed?
  • If a sponsor requests an expansion of scope, what should the project manager do first?
  • Which process uses the schedule baseline to assess deviations and forecast completion?
  • Plan Schedule Management planning activity results in which document?
  • Which technique uses Must Have, Should Have, Could Have, and Won’t Have to prioritize requirements?
  • In RACI terminology, which term refers to those participating in doing the work to complete the task?
  • What is the purpose of risk response planning?
  • Which process focuses on leading and managing the project team, including resolving conflicts?
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